Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 23.06.2025 04:26
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Hunter Dobbins Has Last Laugh In War Of Words With Yankees - NESN
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Do you think Japan will have same-sex marriage by 2030?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Wells Fargo Stock Rises as Fed Lifts Asset Cap After 7 Years - Barron's
What's (not “whats”) the rule?